by "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)" <dlzc1@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
Jan 8, 2008 at 05:54 AM
Dear Odysseus:
"Odysseus" <odysseus1479-at@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message
news:odysseus1479-at-58CE88.03000708012008@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> In article
> <cf9b0744-24da-44ed-885f-5df6b01026ea@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>,
> dlzc <dlzc1@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
>
> <snip>
>>
>> As to your question about which language treats
>> unmodified things as male, it is Indian, as spoken
>> in India.
>
> There is no language called "Indian". Some four
> hundred languages (belonging to several different
> linguistic families) are spoken in India, at least a
> couple of dozen of them having speakers
> numbered in the millions.
The references I glanced at had the male-female dichotomy
extending back to a couple of thousand years BC. Would that be
Hindi then?
David A. Smith
